Quote:
Originally posted by Adder
You don't have a patent (a state granted monopoly) over the horse.
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You and hank must have gone to the same school of pedagogy.
The question still stands--I own a horse or I own a patent. I sell the horse or I sell a patented product, perhaps pursuant to a distribution agreement. Why should the remedies for the resale of the patented product be greater than the remedies for resale of the horse if they violate that distribution agreement? (Bear in mind, I'm not asking "are they greater", which apparently they are, but rather "why should they be greater?")
