LawTalkers  

Go Back   LawTalkers

» Site Navigation
 > FAQ
» Online Users: 139
0 members and 139 guests
No Members online
Most users ever online was 9,654, 05-18-2025 at 05:16 AM.
View Single Post
Old 08-22-2018, 12:20 PM   #11
ThurgreedMarshall
[intentionally omitted]
 
ThurgreedMarshall's Avatar
 
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: NYC
Posts: 18,597
Re: icymi above

Quote:
Originally Posted by sebastian_dangerfield View Post
The difference is oppression either ends, as in the case of Nazi persecution, or it decreases over time, as in the case of bigotry and racism. (Please don't argue "It has not!" I'm measuring relative to the past.) At a certain point following the end of the oppression or the decrease of the oppression to a certain level, the victims begin to bear some personal responsibility for circumstances. (Again, I hate this analysis, as personal responsibility is an concept focused on individuals, not groups [another of many reasons the concept of identity politics is built on sand]). If you disagree with that point, necessarily, you support the following: "The victims of oppression, even when that oppression ends or decreases, never again share responsibility for their circumstances." That cannot be true, of course.
I am quite obviously wonking, and I hope you've all moved past this, but I am floored that you can't see all the logical leaps and fallacies in what you wrote.

At a certain point in time, the decrease of oppression to a certain level means that the group being oppressed now bears some personal responsibility for their situation? What?

Even though groups can't be personally responsible by definition because it's a concept that can only apply to an individual, those groups have to take responsibility for their circumstances? Uh...?

You're not making any sense at all.

TM
ThurgreedMarshall is offline  
 
Powered by vBadvanced CMPS v3.0.1

All times are GMT -4. The time now is 10:32 PM.