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Originally Posted by sebastian_dangerfield
This all rests on the assumption that income is far from normally distributed.
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It's not an assumption, it's a fact. The top 1% are something like 20% of all income. Jesus, man.
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You chose to assess them against the general public because you cannot argue that people making less than $100k are generally affluent.
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Is 2/3 more, less or about the same as Clinton voters? Is it more or less than the proportion of all incomes? I do not know, thus I am not making any claims.
Meanwhile, you're still arguing against a straw man.
