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Re: Objectively intelligent.
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Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop
Suppose that the federal government has the authority to seize medical supplies without facing a takings claim. (I think the way this works is that the law essentially gives the federal government a ROFR when the supplier sells.) Suppose that the federal government then decides to give have of those supplies to the states, and the other half to a private company which can sell them. What would make the second half of that arrangement illegal? It seems like there must be some laws that prevent the government from giving away government property at sweetheart terms. The whole arrangement sounds wildly corrupt.
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See Kelo v. City of New London, 545 U.S. 469 (2005).
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Boogers!
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