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Originally posted by Adder
Spanky, you are starting to get hysterical.
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What is it about people on this board that they love to accuse other people of being emotionally distraught? Its seems that it is the ones that have tendencies towards histrionics that throw this accusation around the most. Being upset about a verb form would seem to be an indication of being emotionally unhinged. What statement in my post indicated to you that I was hysterical?
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Originally posted by Adder
The problem is that your argument can be accurately summed up thusly: torture works, so we should do it.
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My guess is that you are simplifying my argument by extracting important aspects of it, and then you are going to pretend I have not addressed certain issues that those extracted points addressed; a modified version of the straw man argument. We shall see….
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Originally posted by Adder The problem with your symplicity is that it ignores at least three valid critiques: (1) even if it works, torture may be immoral,
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Typical. You simplify my argument, knocking out the parts where I addressed this issue, and then state I am not addressing this issue. The “symplicity” only comes from your “simplification” not from my arguments. I have consistently and repeatedly addressed those critiques; why do you pretend that I have not? At this point the morality issue does not provide a problem for my argument because I already established that in certain circumstances torture is not only moral, but is a moral imperative. This was where Taxwonk came up with the completely absurd argument that sometime one must do acts (like torture) to do the right thing, yet such acts are still immoral. Except for Taxwonk's self contradictory and illogical statement, no one has even attempted to dispute that assertion. At least do me the courtesy of when stating that torture may be immoral, to address the issue of the ticking time bomb scenario.
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Originally posted by Adder
(2) to the extent that the question of morality turns on our ability to torture only those who are truly guilty,
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Does our criminal justice system turn on our ability to only imprison and fine those who are guilty? Does our ability to employ our armed forces turn on our ability to have absolutely no collateral damages (if it did has there ever been a war without collateral damage)? Is perfection ever an option? Isn't the issue whether we can employ torture and significantly avoid torturing the innocent?
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Originally posted by Adder
we do not have any semblance of that ability
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Are you saying that we have never coerced information out of a guilty party? Please provide evidence of this statement. And one or two examples of mistakes are not a valid refutation. You need to show that it is a commonly recurring (and an unfixable) occurrence.
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Originally posted by Adder and (3) torture is widely recognized as leading a unreliable information,
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It is my examples of the use of torture by the Nazis, KGB, and North Korean, North Vietnamese etc. that I believe thoroughly refute this point. I know peopel would like to pretend that I bring these examples up to defend the morality of torture but you ignore these facts when you aver that torture is an unreliable means of procuring information? I asked many questions like, why did the underground movements in France introduce strict information restrictions so their operatives couldn't expose the whole operation when they were caught by the Gestapo? If torture is not reliable then why was this necessary? Why did the pilots in North Vietnam give up so much clandestine information? Bribery? No one addressed those questions. At least Sidd, Cletus and a few others were honest enough to concede that torture can procure reliable information.
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Originally posted by Adder calling into question whether it is either necessary or the most effective means of interrogation.
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Those situations showed torture works. The next issue is; are there other means as effective as torture that could get that information? I believe I addressed that issue and was not disputed. I asked a simple question that I believe makes it obvious this is an erroneous statement, and yet no one has an answer. These captured operatives don't want to give the information up, so what sorts of interrogation techniques have been used besides torture to get this information? The only techniques I have heard of are coercive techniques (like water boarding and sleep deprivation) but the person who employed them claimed they were not torture (but they actually were torture). I am still waiting to hear of techniques that are more effective than torture at getting detainees to divulge information they would otherwise like to not divulge. Or techniques that we have employed that have consistently and effectively forced detainees to divulge information equal to or better than the techniques used by the Gestapo and KGB?
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Originally posted by Adder Point (3) is the argument that "torture doesn't work." You do not overcome that argument by saying that the Soviets and the Nazis used torture, but that only shows that torture leads to information. It does not show that torture is necessary or superior to other forms of interrogation.
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Please see statement above. So why did you not address the Nazis and Soviets success with torture when discussing the issue of the ability of torture to procure reliable information?
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Originally posted by Adder And, of course, you have done nothing to respond to critique (1) or (2).
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As I said before, I have addressed points (1) and (2) many times and no one has been able to address my points. You just conveniently ignored my points by simplifying my argument and then arguing against your summary of my argument.
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Originally posted by Adder
ETA: I was unfair. You have addressed (2), but simply by saying that you don't care about the innocents who will be tortured.
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Now you are just being dishonest. Can you at least do me the courtesy of not accusing me of saying things I have not said? Is that really so hard for you to do? Why are you so big on the straw man arguments?
I could easily summarize your argument as: torture is bad so we shouldn't use it. Then I could argue against that summary of your argument ignoring your other statements. I choose not to do that, why can’t you extend me the same courtesy?
I made five simple points that are the foundation of my argument. Why not just refute each one separately like I have done to your points up above instead of grossly simplifying my argument. )I realize that you pretended to address them but you lumped them all together and then made statements that made no sense. When I asked you to clarify you ignored me) Is the logic of those points so overwhelming that you just need to ignore them? Why not just take each line and tear them apart? Why pretend I said something else and address that?
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Originally posted by Adder
What does their act of barbarism have to do with the moral standards that we choose to hold ourselves to?
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He said our acts made us "less decent" than them. My point was we would have to do a hell of lot more than we have done to make ourselves less decent than them. Do you disagree?