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-   -   We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about! (http://www.lawtalkers.com/forums/showthread.php?t=824)

Adder 03-19-2009 04:02 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384434)
Or they call them Level 3, and get killed by the market for that, too.

I didn't realize you, Adder, Sebby and GGG were arguing for cafeteria valuation, so I'll have to depart from you there. I think MTM is often enough a bad thing that we shouldn't use it, at least for certain types of entities, the line-drawing for which I am uncertain about.

Actually, I agree with you. But a temporary fix is better than none.

Tyrone Slothrop 03-19-2009 04:02 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384431)
Still fighting the hypo. The holder may have actual contact with the borrowers so it has better future default data, or it has a plan to maximize the value of any foreclosed homes. The only buyer may want only out-sized returns, may be substantially more pessimistic about the economy, maybe sees foreclosed real estate as only a liability, may have an extremely high cost of capital. Why should it matter? For the rules to work, they need to work in unusual market conditions, too (and this is different from current market conditions in degree only).

But you didn't give me any reason to think that the one bank has any better information than the other three market participants you describe. Set aside the buyers, because perhaps they're different situated, since they don't own the asset. The other bank that owned the asset sold it for much less.

Quote:

Also, related to the MTM rules, in my hypo, the Bond would be a Level II asset, as the prior sale was a *similar* bond, rather than a piece of the same bond. And if it were a piece of the *same* bond, the holder would still use Level II with some bs distinguishing of the sale--different sized holding or whatever.
Well, I thought you were saying the bonds were the same. If the bonds are different, I don't know enough to say that you should disregard the differences are mark the one to the other's traded value. So then you've given me no market to mark to, and I have to go with the bank's own value.

ThurgreedMarshall 03-19-2009 04:03 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by sgtclub (Post 384430)
Yes, but there is a difference between valuation at a point in time and whether someone is willing to sell for the market price at that point in time. Just because you are not willing to sell at a price does not make the asset more valuable in an objective sense. The optionality in holding may be more valuable to you, but that doesn't meet we should measure a company's financial condition by that metric.

This post says nothing. You don't get to define your method of valuation as "objective" just because it makes your argument sound better.

Look, I can do it too: Just because you base a product's value on what someone would buy it for in an almost completely illiquid market does not make it any less valuable in an objective sense. The option of selling it to you right now may bring you more value, but that doesn't mean we should measure a company's financial condition by that metric.

TM

ThurgreedMarshall 03-19-2009 04:07 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384434)
Or they call them Level 3, and get killed by the market for that, too.

I didn't realize you, Adder, Sebby and GGG were arguing for cafeteria valuation, so I'll have to depart from you there. I think MTM is often enough a bad thing that we shouldn't use it, at least for certain types of entities, the line-drawing for which I am uncertain about.

To be honest, I don't know what the right valuation method would be all the time. I just know that right now, MTM is horrible and it's locking up the credit markets worse than they should be for no good reason.

TM

sgtclub 03-19-2009 04:08 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ThurgreedMarshall (Post 384435)
No. You're shifting the prices and the risk to suit your point. If the risk is built into the price and you know it, then the price is fair and you will sell it. You're just saying $.01 to make it sound bad for the seller. If the risk is built in and you don't sell based on that price (plus a small premium of course), you are acting irrationally.

TM

Whether or not you think the price is fair or that the risk is built in at a point in time does not dictate whether or not you sell, and if you don't, that you are acting irrationally. It should, however, dictate how you book.

Someone may have already posted this, but this gives a good summary of the mark to market pros and cons: http://econlog.econlib.org/archives/...to_market.html

And this is the point I've been trying to make (obviously unsuccessfully)

Quote:

Any discussion of mark-to-market accounting must differentiate between
the beneficial effects of honestly reporting assets at what they are
actually worth and the destructive impact of inflexible regulations that
utilize the principle. Current discussions have blurred the distinction.

Tyrone Slothrop 03-19-2009 04:09 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ThurgreedMarshall (Post 384433)
Your flippant answer is completely empty. No one said it would "unleash" the market. But there are many, many, many people out there who believe it will help.

Lighten up, Francis. Substitute "help" for "unleash" if you don't like my internet chat board hyperbole, but I was entirely non-flippant. I would like it if it would help, but I've explained why I'm skeptical.

Quote:

you're telling me that these assets aren't worth anything because you can't sell them right now. So all these assets that clearly have value because payments are being made on them are deemed to be worth 2% of what their current cash stream is paying and you think instead of trying to figure out how much money they are likely to continue to bring in, we should continue to force banks to keep cash on the books to cover for the deficiency in value of what they could get for them right now?
Yes. I've said again and again and again that that assets have a value of zero if they haven't been traded recently, regardless of the streams of money they bring in, and I've said it so often that even Adder understands now.

Seriously though, here are two questions:

(1) If assets are trading at 2% of what their current cash stream is paying, why isn't anyone buying, and

(2) Do you favor returning to MTM if liquidity returns and brings prices in excess of the current cash stream?

ThurgreedMarshall 03-19-2009 04:11 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384436)
Saying that you should value those assets with MTM when times are good but not when times are bad is tantamount to saying that you should use accounting rules only when they give you pleasing results.

Sorry. I revised the "MTM works great" to "MTM works great for Sellers" in a highly liquid market.

I agree with you and Cletus that you shouldn't be able to pick and choose. I just don't know which method is best all the time (or I would have mentioned it by now). I liked the idea I proposed earlier, even if it would (presumably) take a lot of work, but I haven't applied it to every possible market situation.

TM

sgtclub 03-19-2009 04:13 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ThurgreedMarshall (Post 384439)
This post says nothing. You don't get to define your method of valuation as "objective" just because it makes your argument sound better.

Look, I can do it too: Just because you base a product's value on what someone would buy it for in an almost completely illiquid market does not make it any less valuable in an objective sense. The option of selling it to you right now may bring you more value, but that doesn't mean we should measure a company's financial condition by that metric.

TM

Now you are arguing just to argue. Replace "objective" with "anybody but you" and try again.

ThurgreedMarshall 03-19-2009 04:16 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384442)
Seriously though, here are two questions:

(1) If assets are trading at 2% of what their current cash stream is paying, why isn't anyone buying, and

Because no one is selling at that price because, for a number of reasons, it is not an accurate reflection of their true value.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384442)
(2) Do you favor returning to MTM if liquidity returns and brings prices in excess of the current cash stream?

See my response to Cletus above.

TM

ThurgreedMarshall 03-19-2009 04:17 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by sgtclub (Post 384444)
Now you are arguing just to argue. Replace "objective" with "anybody but you" and try again.

Replace "anybody but you" to "club and Ty" and try again.

TM

Cletus Miller 03-19-2009 04:19 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Adder (Post 384437)
Actually, I agree with you. But a temporary fix is better than none.

Sure, but--at a minimum--it needs to be a permanent election w/r/t the assets opting out of MTM with a minimum term (5 years? 10 years?) mandatory opt-out for any other assets in the same class held now or acquired during the mandatory period by the entity electing to opt out.

But cafeteria accounting isn't a solution, either.

sgtclub 03-19-2009 04:22 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384447)
Sure, but--at a minimum--it needs to be a permanent election w/r/t the assets opting out of MTM with a minimum term (5 years? 10 years?) mandatory opt-out for any other assets in the same class held now or acquired during the mandatory period by the entity electing to opt out.

But cafeteria accounting isn't a solution, either.

The solution, if one exists, is to change the capital adequacy requirements, not the accounting rules.

Cletus Miller 03-19-2009 04:24 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ThurgreedMarshall (Post 384443)
I liked the idea I proposed earlier, even if it would (presumably) take a lot of work, but I haven't applied it to every possible market situation.

TM

If you're referring to a modified mark-to-model using upadted actual numbers, it should* w/r/t bond-type instruments result in increasing values when things are good and decreasing when times are bad but always teathered to the actual cashflow.

*non-accountant speculation

Tyrone Slothrop 03-19-2009 04:24 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ThurgreedMarshall (Post 384445)
Because no one is selling at that price because, for a number of reasons, it is not an accurate reflection of their true value.

I said, if assets are trading at 2% of et cetera, and you responded, because no one is selling at that price. I'm not following you. Either trading is at that price or it isn't.

I'm going to guess that your answer is the only people trading there are distressed. If so, my follow-up questions is, at what point does one decide that distressed sales are actually the market price? I get the concept with distressed sales, but I'm seeing a market that is distressed. And if the whole market is distressed, then I think accounting should reflect that.

Mmmm, Burger (C.J.) 03-19-2009 04:26 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by sgtclub (Post 384448)
The solution, if one exists, is to change the capital adequacy requirements, not the accounting rules.

So change the capital requirements not to be based upon MTM valuations.

Isn't that what we're discussing? I don't think we're discussing the tax consequences of MTM.

Atticus Grinch 03-19-2009 04:33 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384352)
Hey, I'm Episcopalian.

Welcome! See you in the breadline!

Cletus Miller 03-19-2009 04:37 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by sgtclub (Post 384448)
The solution, if one exists, is to change the capital adequacy requirements, not the accounting rules.

Change from the current "we relax them case-by-case anytime a bank (1) whines about not being able to compete with (asian banks, euro banks, I banks, hedge funds, the pope) or (2) is on the verge of collapse"? Change it to what?

And isn't the relaxation of I Bank captial requirements (to "compete" with hedge funds) a large piece of why we got into this mess?

MTM is a mess anyway; it does not adequately provide the transparency it was intended to provide with the loopholes for Level 2 and 3. The best example I could quickly find is that Morgan Stanley, as of end of 2008, had 13% of it's total assets as Level 3 assets.

ThurgreedMarshall 03-19-2009 04:40 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384451)
I said, if assets are trading at 2% of et cetera, and you responded, because no one is selling at that price. I'm not following you. Either trading is at that price or it isn't.

I'm going to guess that your answer is the only people trading there are distressed. If so, my follow-up questions is, at what point does one decide that distressed sales are actually the market price? I get the concept with distressed sales, but I'm seeing a market that is distressed. And if the whole market is distressed, then I think accounting should reflect that.

Do you draw the same conclusion if (without government infusions of cash), they are only* distressed because of the low valuation and the requirement to improve their balance sheet because of the flawed valuation method?

TM

*This is part of the hypothetical

Adder 03-19-2009 04:51 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384442)
Yes. I've said again and again and again that that assets have a value of zero if they haven't been traded recently, regardless of the streams of money they bring in, and I've said it so often that even Adder understands now.

By "understand" I take it you mean, "realize that Ty isn't really saying anything other than 'market prices are generally good'?"

Quote:

(1) If assets are trading at 2% of what their current cash stream is paying, why isn't anyone buying, and
Because no one is selling.

Adder 03-19-2009 04:54 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by sgtclub (Post 384448)
The solution, if one exists, is to change the capital adequacy requirements, not the accounting rules.

That may be right, and your link was excellent, but that ain't going to happen (or at least not in the ways that I inferred that article to be suggesting).

Adder 03-19-2009 04:57 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384451)
I'm going to guess that your answer is the only people trading there are distressed. If so, my follow-up questions is, at what point does one decide that distressed sales are actually the market price? I get the concept with distressed sales, but I'm seeing a market that is distressed. And if the whole market is distressed, then I think accounting should reflect that.

At the risk of going around the whole circle again, why? Why would we assume that the "right" accounting is to value them as though they all need to be sold in distressed sales? We don't do that for other types of assets.

Cletus Miller 03-19-2009 05:05 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Adder (Post 384461)
At the risk of going around the whole circle again, why? Why would we assume that the "right" accounting is to value them as though they all need to be sold in distressed sales? We don't do that for other types of assets.

Hell, distressed sales even get discounted in home appraisals. Not ignored, but discounted.

sgtclub 03-19-2009 05:05 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384454)
Change from the current "we relax them case-by-case anytime a bank (1) whines about not being able to compete with (asian banks, euro banks, I banks, hedge funds, the pope) or (2) is on the verge of collapse"? Change it to what?

And isn't the relaxation of I Bank captial requirements (to "compete" with hedge funds) a large piece of why we got into this mess?

MTM is a mess anyway; it does not adequately provide the transparency it was intended to provide with the loopholes for Level 2 and 3. The best example I could quickly find is that Morgan Stanley, as of end of 2008, had 13% of it's total assets as Level 3 assets.

I'm not convinced they actually should be changed, especially based on the facts, rather than a bunch of lawyers making theoretical arguments out of thin air:

Quote:

"(2) The FASB allowed an exception for debt securities which would
eventually mature at a fixed price, and which the company had the positive
intent and ability to hold to maturity. Mark-to-market accounting is
specifically not required when the company elects to classify the security
as one to be held to maturity.


"(3) In spite of ignorant comments to the contrary, 'market' doesn't mean
that the last trading price of a security must always be used, nor that a
security whose market has virtually disappeared due to unusual
circumstances must be valued at zero or near zero. The FASB EXPLICITLY
permits the use of alternative market measures in such circumstances, such
as the complicated derivative pricing model known as Black-Scholes.
For
instance, Berkshire Hathaway (Warren Buffett's company) has $8.1 billion
(at cost) of derivatives on its books, all carried under mark-to-market
accounting, but none of them currently priced based on the non-existent
market for those derivatives.
I also think we should be very concerned with the banks' liquidity at this point in time, and that allowing them to lend more based on current financial condition is not prudent. I know we need liquidity, but there may be better ways to do it than through the existing banks.

Cletus Miller 03-19-2009 05:18 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by sgtclub (Post 384463)
I'm not convinced they actually should be changed, especially based on the facts, rather than a bunch of lawyers making theoretical arguments out of thin air:



I also think we should be very concerned with the banks' liquidity at this point in time, and that allowing them to lend more based on current financial condition is not prudent. I know we need liquidity, but there may be better ways to do it than through the existing banks.

1. I'm not digging into this now, but I think that the election of "hold to maturity" has to be made at acquisition.

2. "derivative pricing model known as Black-Scholes". Yeah, the use (and misuse) of Black-Scholes hasn't caused any problems.

Adder 03-19-2009 05:20 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384464)
1. I'm not digging into this now, but I think that the election of "hold to maturity" has to be made at acquisition.

2. "derivative pricing model known as Black-Scholes". Yeah, the use (and misuse) of Black-Scholes hasn't caused any problems.

As to 1, it has been awhile, but that used to be the case. And could not be changed without dire consequences.

As to 2, there is lots of political (and other) pressure on the banks to keep writing these things down.

Greedy,Greedy,Greedy 03-19-2009 05:30 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384464)
1. I'm not digging into this now, but I think that the election of "hold to maturity" has to be made at acquisition.

2. "derivative pricing model known as Black-Scholes". Yeah, the use (and misuse) of Black-Scholes hasn't caused any problems.

On 1, it does. On 2, Black-Scholes is itself a market based valuation method, and I don't think anyone (at least me) every said that the only mark-to-market is last trading price.

I know, we're a bunch of ignorant lawyers. But I managed to marry a banker. Who is still lending.

Tyrone Slothrop 03-19-2009 05:40 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ThurgreedMarshall (Post 384455)
Do you draw the same conclusion if (without government infusions of cash), they are only* distressed because of the low valuation and the requirement to improve their balance sheet because of the flawed valuation method?

TM

*This is part of the hypothetical

No. Because I think the low valuation reflects that something fundamental has changed in the markets.

Cletus Miller 03-19-2009 05:44 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Greedy,Greedy,Greedy (Post 384467)
On 1, it does. On 2, Black-Scholes is itself a market based valuation method, and I don't think anyone (at least me) every said that the only mark-to-market is last trading price.

I know, we're a bunch of ignorant lawyers. But I managed to marry a banker. Who is still lending.

And one more (non-sarcastic) thing about Black-Scholes--it's rock solid for pricing equity options, but not for pricing credit derivatives, despite the implication of club's cite.

Cletus Miller 03-19-2009 05:47 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384468)
No. Because I think the low valuation reflects that something fundamental has changed in the markets.

This is no doubt true; the known unknown (in the context of this discussion) is whether that something is (or affects) the fundamental value of a Bond. Or if it is a change in the discount/premium a buyer applies to the attendant cashflow.

ThurgreedMarshall 03-19-2009 05:52 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Greedy,Greedy,Greedy (Post 384467)
I know, we're a bunch of ignorant lawyers. But I managed to marry a banker. Who is still lending.

Why isn't she my client?* I mean, she's already used to ignorant lawyers.

TM

*(Law firm client.)

Tyrone Slothrop 03-19-2009 05:53 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Adder (Post 384459)
By "understand" I take it you mean, "realize that Ty isn't really saying anything other than 'market prices are generally good'?"

I'm not sure I was giving you that much credit, but I don't recall exactly what I was thinking.

Tyrone Slothrop 03-19-2009 05:59 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Adder (Post 384461)
At the risk of going around the whole circle again, why? Why would we assume that the "right" accounting is to value them as though they all need to be sold in distressed sales?

A distressed sale is an aberration in a well-functioning market. If every sale is "distressed," at some point you've got to acknowledge that they are not aberrations, but that you're in a different market.

Apropos of Nothing 03-19-2009 06:13 PM

The lure of easy money has a very strong appeal.
 
Apro . . . uh, by the by, there was a poster on Infirm named "mark to market."

He was boring, too.

I keed, I keed. He wasn't. You people are, though. Jesus H. Christ! Why isn't someone blaming Dodd for crafting the AIG bonus loophole? Or Geithner for asking him to? Or Obama for hiring Legolas in the first place?

Tyrone Slothrop 03-19-2009 06:23 PM

Re: The lure of easy money has a very strong appeal.
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Apropos of Nothing (Post 384474)
Apro . . . uh, by the by, there was a poster on Infirm named "mark to market."

He was boring, too.

I keed, I keed. He wasn't. You people are, though. Jesus H. Christ! Why isn't someone blaming Dodd for crafting the AIG bonus loophole? Or Geithner for asking him to? Or Obama for hiring Legolas in the first place?

Just thank God we haven't been talking about AIG all day. Dodd should be toast, no?

Greedy,Greedy,Greedy 03-19-2009 06:38 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by ThurgreedMarshall (Post 384471)
Why isn't she my client?* I mean, she's already used to ignorant lawyers.

TM

*(Law firm client.)

We will call you when it's time to lend in NY. Still a few years away. You have the other qualification as well - not just ignorant, but stubborn and ignorant.

Greedy,Greedy,Greedy 03-19-2009 06:42 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Cletus Miller (Post 384469)
And one more (non-sarcastic) thing about Black-Scholes--it's rock solid for pricing equity options, but not for pricing credit derivatives, despite the implication of club's cite.

It comes up with pretty funky results when pricing private company equity options (which it wasn't designed for, obviously). Also when pricing equity options in severely distressed situations. The intense variability of a stock in near free fall drives the value up without the formula really focusing on the fact that the variability is heading inexorably one way.

Adder 03-19-2009 06:55 PM

Re: The lure of easy money has a very strong appeal.
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Apropos of Nothing (Post 384474)
Apro . . . uh, by the by, there was a poster on Infirm named "mark to market."

He was boring, too.

I keed, I keed. He wasn't. You people are, though. Jesus H. Christ! Why isn't someone blaming Dodd for crafting the AIG bonus loophole? Or Geithner for asking him to? Or Obama for hiring Legolas in the first place?

Perhaps because the AIG bonus thing is a ridiculous much ado about nothing?

Hank Chinaski 03-19-2009 07:16 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Greedy,Greedy,Greedy (Post 384479)
We will call you when it's time to lend in NY. Still a few years away. You have the other qualification as well - not just ignorant, but stubborn and ignorant.

A banker that prays for early withdraw, or is used to it at least. Wild.

taxwonk 03-19-2009 11:39 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384346)
If there's a reliable stream of revenue, why doesn't the market price reflect this? I take the market price to be the best measure of what the asset is worth. I am more than willing to listen to stories to explain why the market isn't working well, but I don't buy the idea that everyone is panicking. Wall Street is full of smart, rich people who make money when other people are doing dumb things.

Instead of the panic story, what I'm seeing is a parallel to LTCM, which put a lot of money into assets that did well when they were doing well and liquid, but which they then could not get out of when Russia defaulted on some debt and things turned south.

Marking to market will not correct the problems that arise when a big player in the market goes south. That is what happened to LTCM, and it is what happened to AIG and Lehman. The rest is panic.

I don't really think you believe the markets function rationally. Humans don't act rationally in any other part of their life, as you are fond of noting. Furthermore, the big, precipitous drop was the result of irrational overleveraging and overbuying in real estate and derivative markets.

The FASB will significantly alter FAS 157, the mark-to-market pronouncement, if they don't withdraw it entirely. If the FASB doesn't do this, the PCAOB will. It's bad accounting policy. It fails to provide transparency or reflect economic reality.

By way of comparison, take a look at FAS 141 I think that's the right statement), which deals with writing down goodwill on a business enterprise's books. The statement requires a business to reduce goodwill when a business's value as a going concern in excess of the intrinsic value of its assets decreases relative to what is currently carried on the books. However, the statement requires that a business determine it is more likely than not that the impairment of goodwill is permanent. Temporary changes in the enterprise value are not a basis for writing down goodwill.

taxwonk 03-19-2009 11:53 PM

Re: We will never agree on this and therefore it is pointless to talk about!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrone Slothrop (Post 384371)
If you're holding an asset with a stream of payments due to you, and you think it is worth x, but no one wants to pay you x for it, you have to ask why. If you think it is worth x because that is how you value the future payments, taking into account the risk of default, etc., but the market doesn't seem to agree, you seem to have a problem. If there really isn't a market because these assets haven't ever been traded, then maybe you don't have a problem. But if there was a market, and your valuation of x is based on the prices others were willing to pay last year but aren't now, perhaps because they're no longer so leveraged or because they've started paying attention to the problems with ratings, you probably do have a problem.

That's not true. There are people who aren't buying because they can't borrow. There are people who aren't buying because they don't think the market ahs hit bottom, and there are people who aren't willing to offer X because they are bottom-feeding and looking for unrealistic returns.

If the discounted cash flow of the payment stream on an asset is X and the obligor is continuing to make those payments, then the market has a problem, not the party valuing the asset. And the big reason we're in such a shithole is because the market does have a problem right now.


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