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 Look, I can do it too: Just because you base a product's value on what someone would buy it for in an almost completely illiquid market does not make it any less valuable in an objective sense. The option of selling it to you right now may bring you more value, but that doesn't mean we should measure a company's financial condition by that metric. TM | 
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 Someone may have already posted this, but this gives a good summary of the mark to market pros and cons: http://econlog.econlib.org/archives/...to_market.html And this is the point I've been trying to make (obviously unsuccessfully) Quote: 
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 Seriously though, here are two questions: (1) If assets are trading at 2% of what their current cash stream is paying, why isn't anyone buying, and (2) Do you favor returning to MTM if liquidity returns and brings prices in excess of the current cash stream? | 
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 I agree with you and Cletus that you shouldn't be able to pick and choose. I just don't know which method is best all the time (or I would have mentioned it by now). I liked the idea I proposed earlier, even if it would (presumably) take a lot of work, but I haven't applied it to every possible market situation. TM | 
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 But cafeteria accounting isn't a solution, either. | 
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 *non-accountant speculation | 
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 I'm going to guess that your answer is the only people trading there are distressed. If so, my follow-up questions is, at what point does one decide that distressed sales are actually the market price? I get the concept with distressed sales, but I'm seeing a market that is distressed. And if the whole market is distressed, then I think accounting should reflect that. | 
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 Isn't that what we're discussing? I don't think we're discussing the tax consequences of MTM. | 
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 And isn't the relaxation of I Bank captial requirements (to "compete" with hedge funds) a large piece of why we got into this mess? MTM is a mess anyway; it does not adequately provide the transparency it was intended to provide with the loopholes for Level 2 and 3. The best example I could quickly find is that Morgan Stanley, as of end of 2008, had 13% of it's total assets as Level 3 assets. | 
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 TM *This is part of the hypothetical | 
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 2. "derivative pricing model known as Black-Scholes". Yeah, the use (and misuse) of Black-Scholes hasn't caused any problems. | 
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 As to 2, there is lots of political (and other) pressure on the banks to keep writing these things down. | 
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 I know, we're a bunch of ignorant lawyers. But I managed to marry a banker. Who is still lending. | 
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 TM *(Law firm client.) | 
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 The lure of easy money has a very strong appeal. Apro . . . uh, by the by, there was a poster on Infirm named "mark to market." He was boring, too. I keed, I keed. He wasn't. You people are, though. Jesus H. Christ! Why isn't someone blaming Dodd for crafting the AIG bonus loophole? Or Geithner for asking him to? Or Obama for hiring Legolas in the first place? | 
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 I don't really think you believe the markets function rationally. Humans don't act rationally in any other part of their life, as you are fond of noting. Furthermore, the big, precipitous drop was the result of irrational overleveraging and overbuying in real estate and derivative markets. The FASB will significantly alter FAS 157, the mark-to-market pronouncement, if they don't withdraw it entirely. If the FASB doesn't do this, the PCAOB will. It's bad accounting policy. It fails to provide transparency or reflect economic reality. By way of comparison, take a look at FAS 141 I think that's the right statement), which deals with writing down goodwill on a business enterprise's books. The statement requires a business to reduce goodwill when a business's value as a going concern in excess of the intrinsic value of its assets decreases relative to what is currently carried on the books. However, the statement requires that a business determine it is more likely than not that the impairment of goodwill is permanent. Temporary changes in the enterprise value are not a basis for writing down goodwill. | 
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 If the discounted cash flow of the payment stream on an asset is X and the obligor is continuing to make those payments, then the market has a problem, not the party valuing the asset. And the big reason we're in such a shithole is because the market does have a problem right now. | 
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