Quote:
Originally Posted by Atticus Grinch
I re-read the article. The question on the form was "whether [she] had ever been sexually assaulted." I continue to contend she has not, and that "clearly" she should not say so. She is free to say exactly what happened to whomever she likes, but saying she was sexually assaulted measured only by her feelings and not any failure of her sexual partner to obtain consent is a huge definitional gulf. I don't want women or men going around using the language of criminal law merely to vindicate their feelings, because they will leave more tragedies in their wake.
|
wasn't she asleep when he stuck it in? is lack of objection consent?
